RRB NTPC UG 2026 Exam Analysis — Days 2 & 3 (May 8–9): What You Must Know Before Your Exam Date in June

The RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level CBT 1 2026 examination is well underway. After Day 1 on May 7, the next two dates — May 8 and May 9, 2026 — have added significantly more data to our analysis. Candidates appearing in June now have a clear, data-rich picture of what to expect.

Here is the comprehensive multi-day analysis based on student feedback, shift-wise reporting, and coaching institute reviews.

Exam Overview — Quick Facts

The RRB NTPC UG exam is being conducted on May 7, 8, and 9 and June 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20, 2026.

Each day features two shifts:

• Shift 1: 9:00 AM – 10:30 AM (90 minutes)
• Shift 2: 12:45 PM – 2:15 PM (90 minutes)

Paper structure: 100 questions, 100 marks — General Awareness (40Q), Mathematics (30Q), General Intelligence & Reasoning (30Q)

Negative marking: ⅓ mark per wrong answer

Overall Difficulty — Days 1 to 3 Combined Assessment

Based on candidates’ feedback, the overall difficulty level of the RRB NTPC exam was Easy to Moderate, with some sections posing time-management challenges, particularly in Mathematics and Reasoning.

Across all shifts in May 7, 8, and 9, the consistent pattern is:

The most important shift-to-shift pattern observed: the difficulty of General Awareness has been slightly more variable than Mathematics or Reasoning — some shifts had noticeably tougher current affairs questions than others. This is inherent to RRB’s multi-shift format, and normalisation will account for these variations.

General Awareness (40 Questions) — Detailed Topic Analysis

The General Awareness section tests candidates’ knowledge of current events and important general knowledge topics. Questions are mostly asked from current affairs, static GK, and basic subjects like history, geography, polity, art and culture, and science.

Based on memory-based feedback from May 7–9 shifts, the following topic distribution has emerged:

Current Affairs (2025–2026): 12–18 questions per shift

• Government schemes launched in 2025–26 (PM Vishwakarma, MUDRA Tarun Plus, Drone Didi)
• Recent India-specific sporting achievements and international competitions
• Awards and recognitions: Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, National Film Awards
• Recent appointments: Governors, Chief Ministers, Chief Justice of India, RBI Governor
• International summits, G20 legacy events, and India’s foreign policy developments

Static GK: 12–18 questions per shift

• Indian polity: Constitutional articles (especially 14–32, 246, 368), amendment history
• Indian geography: Major river systems, national parks, biosphere reserves, geographic features
• Modern history: Freedom movement leaders, Acts of 1919/1935, post-independence events
• Basic Science: Physics concepts (force, motion, thermodynamics), Biology (cell structure, human body systems)
• Important days and their themes for 2025–26

Tips for June candidates: Focus your current affairs revision on events from January 2025 to April 2026 — this 16-month window covers virtually all current affairs questions appearing in the exam. Compile government scheme names, launch dates, and beneficiary targets — these are consistently asked.

Mathematics (30 Questions) — Detailed Topic Analysis

The Mathematics section checks candidates’ numerical ability and basic calculation skills. Most questions are asked from arithmetic topics that require speed, accuracy, and problem-solving ability.

Topic-wise distribution observed across May 7–9:

• Number System and Simplification: 3–4 questions (BODMAS, HCF, LCM)
• Percentage: 2–3 questions (percentage increase/decrease, population-based)
• Profit & Loss: 2–3 questions (including discount-based)
• Time & Work: 2–3 questions (work-efficiency, pipe and cistern)
• Time, Speed & Distance: 2–3 questions (relative speed, trains, boats)
• Simple & Compound Interest: 2–3 questions
• Ratio & Proportion and Averages: 2–3 questions
• Data Interpretation: 4–6 questions (table-based and bar graph-based — most time-consuming)
• Mensuration and Geometry: 2–3 questions (area, perimeter, basic geometry)

Critical insight from multiple shifts: Data Interpretation (DI) continues to appear with 4–6 questions — more than most candidates expected. DI is calculation-heavy and can consume 8–12 minutes of your 90-minute paper if you’re not efficient. Candidates who practise DI sets daily are clearing this section much faster.

Recommended target: Attempt all 30 Maths questions, aiming for 22–26 accurate answers. Speed on non-DI questions (approximately 45 seconds each) creates the time buffer needed for DI.

General Intelligence & Reasoning (30 Questions) — Detailed Analysis

The Reasoning section evaluates logical thinking and analytical ability. Questions are usually asked from common reasoning topics that test problem-solving and pattern recognition skills.

Consistent topic distribution across May 7–9:

• Coding-Decoding: 4–5 questions (letter and number-based)
• Analogies (Letter, Word, Number): 4–5 questions
• Series Completion (Alphabetical and Numerical): 3–4 questions
• Blood Relations: 2–3 questions
• Directions and Distances: 2–3 questions
• Syllogism: 2–3 questions
• Classification / Odd One Out: 3–4 questions
• Seating Arrangement / Puzzles: 2–3 questions (simpler than SSC-level)
• Venn Diagrams: 2–3 questions
• Statement & Conclusions / Assumptions: 2–3 questions

Most reasoning questions are direct and pattern-based, especially from puzzles and seating arrangement, coding-decoding, and statement-based reasoning. The General Awareness section was easier in difficulty compared to other sections, and most questions were straightforward.

Recommended target for June candidates: Aim for 26–29 correct answers in Reasoning. This is the highest-accuracy section for well-prepared candidates and should be attempted first to set a strong foundation before moving to Mathematics.

Good Attempts — Benchmark Data from All May Shifts

Good attempts in CBT 1 ranged between 79 and 84 questions across shifts and dates.

For context, “good attempts” means questions attempted with high accuracy — not simply questions clicked. Attempting 90 questions with 70% accuracy is worse than attempting 80 with 90% accuracy because of negative marking.

Section-wise good attempt benchmarks:

• Reasoning: 26–28 questions
• General Awareness: 28–33 questions
• Mathematics: 22–25 questions

Overall target for a strong score: 78–85 attempts with 85%+ accuracy.

Updated Cut-Off Prediction — After Three Days of Data

Based on accumulated student feedback, difficulty patterns, and comparison with previous RRB NTPC cycles, the updated expected cut-off range for UG CBT 1:

These remain estimates pending official normalised scores. Candidates should note: the normalised score will be used for shortlisting of candidates for CBT 1 as per merit. The minimum percentage of marks to qualify in the examination is: UR-40%, EWS-40%, OBC-30%, SC-30%, ST-25%.

For June Candidates — Focused Preparation Plan

You have approximately 5–6 weeks until the June dates begin. Here is a practical roadmap:

Week 1–2 (Now): Aggressive current affairs — compile events from Jan 2025 to April 2026. Focus especially on government schemes, appointments, and India-specific sports and science achievements.

Week 3: Mathematics — master DI (tables, bar graphs, pie charts). Practice 2 DI sets daily. Revise all arithmetic topics.

Week 4: Reasoning — practise 30 questions daily under timed conditions. Focus on coding-decoding, blood relations, and series.

Week 5: Full mock tests — 2 per week minimum. Time yourself strictly. Analyse every wrong answer.

Week 6 (Final): Light revision and daily 1-hour mock tests. Review current affairs one final time.

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